OK so this the brand suboxone combining to drugs. Buprenorphine is a very addictive opioid pain killer that is often known to be misused/ abused when prescribed on its own. The added naloxone is an opioid blocker. If naloxone (or narcon (as it's usually called in America) is injected from someone overdosing on an opiod drug, the naloxone will almost immediately reverse the opioid effects (this would be done in an emergency and has to be done very quickly to prevent a potential fatal opioid overdose).
The reason why manufacturers combine these two together in a single sublingual is that when naloxone is given by this route is has a very mild effect rather than reversing the effects of the opioid and consequently allows the patient to take bupranorphine while also reducing/preventing patients from abusing/overusing an addictive opioid drug when just given on its own.
This sublingual medication is mainly used for patients who are having treatment for addiction/dependence of an opiod class of drug as it helps to curb the effects of opiod withdrawal which make recovery very physically and psychologically difficult. But the added naloxone minimises the patient being able to chase the euphoria related to opiod use. Ie, they can no longer feel the high (although missing that high and wanting to feel it again would still be very naked) but the withdrawal effects are made more tolerable….. BUT just because this it's its listed FDA use, Dr's can chose to prescribe this as a pain relief 'off label'. Meaning that they have made the judgement that although this isn't its approved intended use, they have the clinical prerogative to use it for pain relief (for example Botox is not actually approved for aesthetic wrinkle treatment but to treat things like migraines and overactive bladders). So he could well be being honest with you and yes his Dr may have decided to trial a higher dose (I think it's a crap idea tbh if his did Dr decided to that and he should seek a second opinion from a different doctor… but its not my expertise so that's just my own personal opinion).
He could have been prescribed an opiod for headaches in the past legitimately and used it as he was told to, but either through a crap doctor not monitoring him properly and leaving him on it too long for example, or from him overusing the prescription, he became addicted/dependent on them and needed treatment for withdrawal and as part of his treatment plan this sublingual medication was prescribed to him as part of his recovery.
Usually in this scenario the aim is to wean off this medication over time, however if he is undergoing continued treatment and the initial dose he was on was not managing his withdrawal symptoms sufficiently his Dr may have decided to increase the dose and slowly wean down again… Or he may have been finding himself really struggling with the withdrawal and made the decision himself.
So it's a tricky one and there could be millions of answers and the only one who knows the truth is your SO…
It could be exactly as he told you
He could have been using street opiods (heroin, fentanyl, oxy (oxy is no longer as common as its harder to get hold of on the street and expensive)) and is now having recovery treatment;
3.Or may have been legitimately prescribed an opiod which when stopped gave him withdrawal symptoms which needed the same treatment.
I know this doesn't give you an answer for what exactly is going on but that's what his medication is used for
PS sorry for the long waffle but just wanted to explain every option is plausible
Maybe give the “PI” her real number. Let them handle it. Then you don’t have to know if it is true and she gets the warning if needed. Good luck.
Well, it was kinda implied in what you said, tbh. I'm just wondering – aren't there other acts you both enjoy? I wouldn't call this an incompatibility, you're never going to be with someone who shares every sexual like and dislike 100%. Granted, I'm not you and I may not understand how much this matters to you, but I think it's worth exploring what you both are into.
Girl- he doesn’t want you or value you. He knew what he was doing and feels no remorse, he told you because he got caught. Don’t be dumb. He was perfectly fine throwing away what you had for some girl he hasn’t met. You said it yourself this is the first step towards a relationship of lies and cheating. Saying you forgive him only sets the example of it’s okay to do it and you don’t care.
It sounds more like they are carrying on a relationship. There's no reason to be over there 4-5 overnights a week to “talk” about whether or not they are keeping the baby.
In my opinion, they are keeping the baby, and he's leading you on, hoping you will be willing to step in and play step-mom. You are way too young for all this drama, I think it's best for you to make a clean break.
I don't understand why you had to go. I don't understand why his father has some “right” to go to strip clubs or why he had to be the one taking him.
Do you have to go everywhere with him? Did you just accept that you were with someone who cares so little for your feelings or did this side of him only come out after marriage?
Can anyone link the free digital copy of a”Why does he do that?” by Lundy Bancroft? I have it saved somewhere, but can’t find it. A wise redditor recommended this book and it’s changed my understanding of interpersonal relationships. Highly recommend it for this situation OP!
Change the locks, quick! 🙂
OK so this the brand suboxone combining to drugs. Buprenorphine is a very addictive opioid pain killer that is often known to be misused/ abused when prescribed on its own. The added naloxone is an opioid blocker. If naloxone (or narcon (as it's usually called in America) is injected from someone overdosing on an opiod drug, the naloxone will almost immediately reverse the opioid effects (this would be done in an emergency and has to be done very quickly to prevent a potential fatal opioid overdose).
The reason why manufacturers combine these two together in a single sublingual is that when naloxone is given by this route is has a very mild effect rather than reversing the effects of the opioid and consequently allows the patient to take bupranorphine while also reducing/preventing patients from abusing/overusing an addictive opioid drug when just given on its own.
This sublingual medication is mainly used for patients who are having treatment for addiction/dependence of an opiod class of drug as it helps to curb the effects of opiod withdrawal which make recovery very physically and psychologically difficult. But the added naloxone minimises the patient being able to chase the euphoria related to opiod use. Ie, they can no longer feel the high (although missing that high and wanting to feel it again would still be very naked) but the withdrawal effects are made more tolerable….. BUT just because this it's its listed FDA use, Dr's can chose to prescribe this as a pain relief 'off label'. Meaning that they have made the judgement that although this isn't its approved intended use, they have the clinical prerogative to use it for pain relief (for example Botox is not actually approved for aesthetic wrinkle treatment but to treat things like migraines and overactive bladders). So he could well be being honest with you and yes his Dr may have decided to trial a higher dose (I think it's a crap idea tbh if his did Dr decided to that and he should seek a second opinion from a different doctor… but its not my expertise so that's just my own personal opinion).
He could have been prescribed an opiod for headaches in the past legitimately and used it as he was told to, but either through a crap doctor not monitoring him properly and leaving him on it too long for example, or from him overusing the prescription, he became addicted/dependent on them and needed treatment for withdrawal and as part of his treatment plan this sublingual medication was prescribed to him as part of his recovery.
Usually in this scenario the aim is to wean off this medication over time, however if he is undergoing continued treatment and the initial dose he was on was not managing his withdrawal symptoms sufficiently his Dr may have decided to increase the dose and slowly wean down again… Or he may have been finding himself really struggling with the withdrawal and made the decision himself.
So it's a tricky one and there could be millions of answers and the only one who knows the truth is your SO…
It could be exactly as he told you
He could have been using street opiods (heroin, fentanyl, oxy (oxy is no longer as common as its harder to get hold of on the street and expensive)) and is now having recovery treatment;
3.Or may have been legitimately prescribed an opiod which when stopped gave him withdrawal symptoms which needed the same treatment.
I know this doesn't give you an answer for what exactly is going on but that's what his medication is used for
PS sorry for the long waffle but just wanted to explain every option is plausible
Maybe give the “PI” her real number. Let them handle it. Then you don’t have to know if it is true and she gets the warning if needed. Good luck.
Well, it was kinda implied in what you said, tbh. I'm just wondering – aren't there other acts you both enjoy? I wouldn't call this an incompatibility, you're never going to be with someone who shares every sexual like and dislike 100%. Granted, I'm not you and I may not understand how much this matters to you, but I think it's worth exploring what you both are into.
Girl- he doesn’t want you or value you. He knew what he was doing and feels no remorse, he told you because he got caught. Don’t be dumb. He was perfectly fine throwing away what you had for some girl he hasn’t met. You said it yourself this is the first step towards a relationship of lies and cheating. Saying you forgive him only sets the example of it’s okay to do it and you don’t care.
Bro you are so young, just dump and block him
Yea sometimes it's not easy to follow rules that you've set for yourself. At least you know that those mask expectations are valid
I would report it to his work if ya can or serve him divorce papers at his job.
It sounds more like they are carrying on a relationship. There's no reason to be over there 4-5 overnights a week to “talk” about whether or not they are keeping the baby.
In my opinion, they are keeping the baby, and he's leading you on, hoping you will be willing to step in and play step-mom. You are way too young for all this drama, I think it's best for you to make a clean break.
I don't understand why you had to go. I don't understand why his father has some “right” to go to strip clubs or why he had to be the one taking him.
Do you have to go everywhere with him? Did you just accept that you were with someone who cares so little for your feelings or did this side of him only come out after marriage?
Can anyone link the free digital copy of a”Why does he do that?” by Lundy Bancroft? I have it saved somewhere, but can’t find it. A wise redditor recommended this book and it’s changed my understanding of interpersonal relationships. Highly recommend it for this situation OP!